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I'm not sure how we've deluded ourselves into thinking that the two are not directly related. As other commenters have mentioned, it isn't big scary guns, but the hundreds of millions of handguns everywhere and easily available in the USA that do most of the damage.


See where I just commented on the fact that our murder rate has halved since the 1970-90s period while gun ownership rates have not changed, strongly suggesting we should look elsewhere, perhaps, as I note, demographics: https://news.ycombinator.com/item?id=9838517


The murder rate overall has gone down, but we are still an outlier when it comes to the number of guns and gun homicides.


This is a strange definition of correlated, where one variable changes and the other does not.


Our outlier high gun homicide rate is dependent on our extremely high number of guns easily available to commit those homicides.


So you're saying these two variables are correlated, even though they are not, in fact, correlated?


They are correlated.


Who's on first?




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