I'm going skiing this weekend. I own my car, skis and the rest of the equipment I'll need to get there and enjoy a couple days on the slopes, but if I were to rent those items, there would be taxes paid, both in sales tax and on the profits made by the rental companies. So, if I were in the NL should their government require me to pay taxes on the items I own due to it depriving the government of the taxes I'd be generating by renting everything? Would that tax vary depending on how many times I used my equipment? That seems nonsensical and creates an ad absurdum situation...would someone be taxed for cooking their own meals since restaurants pay taxes?
> Economically there is no good reason to distinguish between these two cases
The good reason is property rights. The ability for people to own things and use them as they see fit is almost a requirement for a free society. Governments have established that by creating rules and an environment where commerce can take place, they can collect taxes on that commerce. But I agree with the post you're replying to...creating fictional commerce and then taxing it doesn't seem right. If you're looking for a difference between the two cases you present, it's that the government is willing to act as an arbiter in any dispute that would result between landlord and tenant. When the landlord and tenant are the same person, there's no need for the government to be involved.
Note that this shouldn't preclude governments from collecting property taxes, just from differentiating between landlords and people who occupy their own homes.
"creating fictional commerce and then taxing it doesn't seem right"
The ACA case that decided the legality of the individual mandate also had the effect of prohibiting the government from instigating commerce for the purpose of regulating it. Note that the tax-penalty (can it be both at the same time? Can light be a wave and a particle at the same time?) over not having health insurance is not a tax on commerce in health insurance; it is a penalty for violating the individual mandate. So the court has ruled that it can penalize people for violating the law under its taxing power, but also that the government cannot instigate commerce. The only way then to tax imputed rent would be to mandate that property owners rent their dwellings out. This in turn would be a violation of government instigation of commerce. A catch-22.
So not only does it not seem right, it doesn't seem legal.
Governments have established that by creating rules and an environment where commerce can take place, they can collect taxes on that commerce.
This implies that things like dividends should not be taxed, since no commerce occurs. All that happened is a piece of property split into two. Would you favor this outcome? If not, why not?
Now personally, I'm in favor of eliminating all taxes on capital income (and capital, e.g. property taxes). Economically, the best tax is a consumption tax; you live in a home, you pay taxes on the value of living in it. No property tax, no income tax, etc.
Potentially such taxes could also be levied at the time of purchase, as they would be with a pair of skis.
But that's a political non-starter; our western systems of taxation are built around the lie that the rich benefit disproportionately from our society. A consumption tax, which taxes people based on the benefits they receive rather than the value they create for others, would automagically reveal that lie.
> the lie that the rich benefit disproportionately from our society
Why do you consider that a lie? There's a reason why kidnappers try to target rich people's kids... because rich people are willing to pay much more to gave their kid back - they literally value the kid's life more (in money terms).
Another perspective is, a geting injured/killed will deprive a rich person of a lot of consumption, but a poor person of just a little consumption. Therefore, by protecting rich people, governments provide more value than by protecting poor people.
> Now personally, I'm in favor of eliminating all taxes on capital income (and capital, e.g. property taxes). Economically, the best tax is a consumption tax; you live in a home, you pay taxes on the value of living in it. No property tax, no income tax, etc.
What about income tax? What about corporate tax (personally, I think it makes sense, because it's a choice - you don't need to pay corporate tax, but they you don't get the privileges of the corporation being a separate entity)?
For the most part, rich people produce far more than they consume. Poor people consume far more than they produce. Consumption inequality is vastly lower than income inequality.
I'm opposed to income tax as well. A consumption tax is the best tax, since it's both a) hard to dodge, b) transparent and c) doesn't penalize investment.
In principle an income tax is equivalent to a consumption tax, but in practice taxing labor income but not capital income induces all sorts of tax avoidance schemes that treat labor income as if it were capital income.
Do you value "equality" at all? E.g. do you find huge inheritance unfair (because it's something you didn't produce) or not? How about "proportionate representation" (one person, one vote, as opposed to the current situation where rich have vastly more political power)?
I don't particularly value equality - rather, I value utility. If I can make everyone better off, but increase inequality in the process, I will.
How much poverty are you willing to create to reduce inequality? That's the fundamental question. For me the answer is zero.
I also don't assign much value to proportionate representation. I think I'd prefer the rich to have more political power, they seem to be the least insane. Unfortunately, in our system we do have proportionate representation. The only way a rich person can influence electoral outcomes is by persuading poor and middle class people to vote for his candidate. Sadly, as Trump demonstrates, this can be done just as easily with nonsensical emotional appeals as with intellectual ones.
> I don't particularly value equality - rather, I value utility. If I can make everyone better off, but increase inequality in the process, I will.
Unfortunately, inequality is, empirically, one of the strongest sources of disutility. So, as much as you might think you can "make everyone better off, but increase inequality in the process" when you use poor proxies for utility, you probably can't.
> I also don't assign much value to proportionate representation.
Comparative studies (at least among nominal democracies), show that proportionality is fairly strongly correlated with experienced utility of government. So, this may be incompatible with your claimed preference for utility. (see, e.g., Lijphart's Patterns of Democracy.)
> I think I'd prefer the rich to have more political power, they seem to be the least insane.
Maybe they just have more power to shape perceptions through media, image management, etc.
What evidence do you have that inequality is a source of disutility?
Note that if you pull out one of the ever popular left wing scatterplots putting cross-country inequality on the x-axis, I'm going to pull out one with a higher r^2 putting something politically incorrect like single mothers or black people on the x-axis.
As for proportional repersentation, if it indeed is instrumentally useful in creating utility that's fine. But I only care about it insofar as it actually gets us other good outcomes - it's not something I intrinsically value.
But you don't necessarily increase poverty by decreasing utility and increasing inequality. Arguably, 8-hour workweek and restriction of child labor reduced utility of people (at least on the short-term), but markedly improved their quality of life and probably decreased inequality as well. IMO it's likely that we would be much more productive and "better off" in a society where we're all "equal" (to some degree - e.g. a very good model of society is described in the story Manna by Marshall Brain - every day, everybody get's the same amount of energy (which cannot be stored) and they can use it however they want - including donating it to worthy causes).
Without proportionate representation, it's unlikely that you can achieve "everyone better off", because your measure will be biased - such a system practically ensures that the rich/powerful are better off at the expense of the poor, because their desires are weighted more heavily!
But you don't necessarily increase poverty by decreasing utility and increasing inequality.
I'm asking about values, not specific world conditions. Sometimes the world lets us get everything we want - e.g., globalization and capitalism so far have reduced poverty and inequality together.
But sometimes the world doesn't give us the easy case. That's when we actually need to understand our values, and answer questions like "how many people will I push into poverty to reduce GINI by 1%?" If your answer is zero, you agree with me completely and don't care about inequality. Are you agreeing with me that inequality is irrelevant now?
I agree that equality is not important as a goal, but it's important as a means - I think (i.e. based on my observation of reality) that inequality results in bad outcomes (i.e. takes us further from the goal of "less poverty" or "better lives"), hence my drive to oppose and fight it.
Of course, it would be even better if I/we could simply reduce poverty and improves lives directly (without the detour of fighting inequality), but currently I don't know how (and neither does anyone else).
One of the best, if unrealistic, solutions I see are robots; but between now and when we invent really useful robots, I think it's important to strive to prevent outcomes as displayed in the movie Elysium (or the alternative future in the story Manna).
Taxation based on consumption is a horrible idea, because it impacts the people with low incomes much more than the people with high incomes. Everyone must spend a fraction of their income on consumption merely to exist. The poorer you are, the larger that fraction. Which means that a tax based on consumption is in effect a form of progressive taxation turned upside down where you pay less the more you earn.
Yes, it taxes people proportional to the benefit they receive rather than proportional to the value they create. Low/no income people tend to consume far more than they produce. Such a tax will stop penalizing investment which is a good thing.
Why would we want rich people to throw lavish parties rather than creating future productive capacity?
First of all, yes, consumption is almost always preferable to "letting your money work for you". Contrary to what you seem to think, most people who have more wealth than they need for consumption, don't use that wealth to fund new ventures. Instead they mostly just own assets that appreciate in value and/or pay a dividend. They do not create new wealth to any significant degree. While it is true to some extent that having money in the bank can help create new wealth, it makes no difference if it's one person putting a million dollars or a thousand people each putting one thousand dollars in the bank. The result in either case is that the bank can lend out a million dollars to someone starting a new venture. I mention this because when one person spends (consumes goods) a thousand dollars say, that money goes out if her bank account and into someone else's. The bank's ability to lend out money is unaffected. Meanwhile, thanks to the power of capitalism, money that is spent flows towards what society in aggregate deems most valuable, ensuring that more effort is spent on creating more of that valuable thing. This is in a nutshell why it's preferable for all, poor and rich, to prevent rampant inequality.
Secondly, I do somewhat agree that we shouldn't disincentivize investment or saving up. I am not familiar with the US tax system, but in some countries you can defer paying taxes on what you put into a pension plan until the time when you collect your pension. If the interest you earn on your savings is more than the inflation, this is a win/win situation: You will earn interest on a larger amount, and society will collect tax on a larger amount in the end too. I could probably be convinced that it would be a good idea to make all investment and savings tax free provided that all dividends as well as any amount liquidated was taxed as income. Buy a house? Fine that's tax deductible. Sell a house? Get taxed on the entire amount as if it were income.
it makes no difference if it's one person putting a million dollars or a thousand people each putting one thousand dollars in the bank. The result in either case is that the bank can lend out a million dollars to someone starting a new venture.
This is wrong because it focuses solely on imaginary numbers floating around. It's absolutely true that we can play any game we want with numbers in a bank computer.
However, a worker can either be building a new factory or they can be making a purse. The former is investment while the latter is consumption. If we encourage investment we get more of the former, while if we encourage consumption we get more of the latter. The constraint here is real resources, not money.
I could probably be convinced that it would be a good idea to make all investment and savings tax free provided that all dividends as well as any amount liquidated was taxed as income.
As I tried to get across before, most of what we think of as investment, doesn't actually create value. Buying land does not create value, buying stock does not usually create new value (unless it's from a new offering). Owning assets that appreciate in value does not create new value. So tell me again why any of these kinds of investment is something we should go out of our way to encourage? On the other hand, consumption in a capitalist society really does create value, because consumption is the all important signalling mechanism that tells us where to direct our resources, ensuring that more value is created. Consumption is not without problems, but it is unquestionably valuable.
So not only would a tax system based on consumption be hugely unjust from a social perspective, it also makes no sense from an economic perspective.
The issue isn't any individual act of saving (most of which are just reshufflings of investment assets), it's net investment. If the amount of money invested goes up, it buys more real investment resources. This means more workers and more physical resources are devoted to investment, and less to consumption.
Again, think of real resources because thinking of money is confusing you. A worker can either do biomedical research (investment) or they can provide massages (consumption). This fact doesn't change no matter what games you imagine are happening with money.
Yes, I probably am a little bit confused as to what exactly you mean when you talk about investment. Is buying a house an investment? How about a yacht? What about a vintage car? Stock? From a social point of view these are all more or less equivalent, as in they all result in money going out of your pocket into someone else's and some asset (which may or may not appreciate in value) being transferred to you. Depending on your point of view they can all be though of as both investment and consumption. This leads me to speculate if what you really mean is that it is spending that should be taxed and taking a profit that should be tax exempt? If not I would very much like to hear how you would define investment in such a way that it can unambiguously be separated from consumption.
But regardless, the intention behind your proposal still makes it a horrible idea. I can see that you will not be swayed by the argument that it is socially very unjust and would result a unimaginable inequality. But as I keep trying to tell you, consumption is the motor of capitalism. It is the demand part of supply and demand. Without consumption, there is no production. And production is what creates all the wealth. Everybody would be poorer.
Furthermore, while it's true the funding new ventures also contribute to wealth creation, and that lack of risk seeking capital would be a problem, it is simply not a problem that exists in our present condition as evidenced by the historically low interest rates. In fact there is an overabundance of capital in today's world. What is lacking is sound new ventures to invest in. If we were to further incentivize investment, we would only accelerate the formation of a catastrophic bubble.
Your understanding of macroeconomics is simplistic if you believe as you seem to do that more investing is always positive or that consumption is always negative.
Your entire argument is focusing on the micro, not the macro. Buying a house is an investment for the person who did it. But if the person you buy from turns around and spends the money on consumption, there is no net investment. One person shifted to investment, another shifted to consumption, the macro effect is zero.
A net investment in houses would involve more housing being owned than before. This would require more houses to be built, and this in turn would require people a shift of workers/materials/etc from other uses into housing construction. Present day consumption goes down in return for an increase in future consumption.
The result is that in the future, productive capacity has increased and more housing is available to consume.
If you want to see the result of a lack of real investment, look at SF. All sorts of games being played with money, but nominally wealthy people can't even afford a flat without roommates.
But as I keep trying to tell you, consumption is the motor of capitalism. It is the demand part of supply and demand. Without consumption, there is no production. And production is what creates all the wealth. Everybody would be poorer.
Why don't you explain the mechanism by which this occurs in real terms? I'm pretty sure you've wildly misunderstood Keynesian economics and are conflating the Keynesian cure for prideful workers (which we don't have now - full employment) for some sort of general growth prescription.
Your entire argument is focusing on the micro, not the macro
You were the one suggesting that investment should be exempt from tax. That requires a definition on the micro level of what constitutes investment, otherwise how do you determine whether or not some expenditure is to be taxed or not? From a practical point of view, how do you differentiate consumption from investment?
If you want to see the result of a lack of real investment, look at SF
Oh, so now there's more than one kind of investment, and only one is "the real kind"? As far as I can see, it doesn't get much realler than in SF: You've got risk seeking capital funding actual new ventures. As in actually creating new wealth. Provided of course that those new ventures succeed. Those rich people you talk of who can't afford to live there have the firstest of first world problems.
It's funny that you should mention SF, because it is a great example of what happens when there is an overabundance of capital and everyone is seeking to invest. You get investors taking on more and more risk to get a return on their capital and ultimately you get a bursting bubble. You see capital by itself does not magically cause value to be created, even when it is used to fund new ventures. If I build a house or a widget, or if I've performed a service, I've only created value, if that house/widget/service was needed in the first place. A man who invests in hotels on the South Pole or a sand selling business in the Sahara is actually destroying wealth. Just like everyone who invested in pets.com before the dot com bubble.
Why don't you explain the mechanism by which this occurs in real terms?
I'm not entirely sure what you mean by real terms? I can say it simpler terms if you like. It's not complicated: Imagine a supermarket. As people buy stuff, the shelves are gradually emptied. The shelves that are emptied first are the ones holding stuff that is most important i.e. valuable to people. Luckily the empty shelf is a great signal to whomever makes the stuff that gets sold in the supermarket to produce more of that stuff. There is of course a pricing component of that mechanism also, but that's basically how that works. If the producer of stuff is unable to keep up with the demand, then that's an opportunity to invest in a new factory that makes the same stuff. Of course not everything sold in supermarket is essential, but I'm sure you would agree that that doesn't mean it is without value. But if we were to tax everything sold in the supermarket heavily (and we would need to if we abolished other forms of tax), we would disincentivize buying anything except the bare necessities. If I understand you correctly, this is more or less the point. This then means that it becomes much harder selling anything other than the bare necessities, and as a consequence lots of businesses must close. Sure, there may be a tiny market selling motorized lawnmowers, but since everything becomes so expensive, most people will get by with a manual lawnmower. But this again means that people will have to spend more time mowing their lawns, and will have less time to do something else that could be valuable. And so on.
Look, I'm not saying that more consumption is always better. Clearly there comes a point at which people buy shit they don't need, and there is also a very real sustainability issue. It's a good idea to tax things like fossil fuels and cigarettes. But most of everything that's valuable gets produced because someone is willing and able to consume it.
"Real" = physical resources. "Nominal" = money. Standard econ terms.
Consumption is differentiated from investment in that consumption is stuff you intrinsically want, while investment is things you don't want except because it gives you other things later.
Again, standard economic terms.
Imagine a supermarket. As people buy stuff, the shelves are gradually emptied. The shelves that are emptied first are the ones holding stuff that is most important i.e. valuable to people. Luckily the empty shelf is a great signal to whomever makes the stuff that gets sold in the supermarket to produce more of that stuff.
How can they produce more? They haven't devoted any physical resources to building that new factory or otherwise upgrading their productive capacity.
But if we were to tax everything sold in the supermarket heavily (and we would need to if we abolished other forms of tax), we would disincentivize buying anything except the bare necessities. If I understand you correctly, this is more or less the point.
Consumption is differentiated from investment in that consumption is stuff you intrinsically want, while investment is things you don't want except because it gives you other things later.
That’s fine, but as I've argued previously, almost any purchase can be argued to fit either description. People do actually buy e.g. fine wine as an investment. How will the IRS determine if a purchase is an investment or consumption?
How can they produce more? They haven't devoted any physical resources to building that new factory or otherwise upgrading their productive capacity.
Presumably they make a profit from selling the stuff. And maybe they produce less of the stuff that doesn't sell well. But how do you even get that from what I wrote? Consumption is not antithetical to investment. I am not arguing against investment. It's not clear to me if you understand that investing does not automatically create a market. All those Chinese ghost towns we hear about are the result of investing in something for which there is no market.
This is completely NOT the point.
In that case I apologize for misunderstanding you. Still, it's an empirical fact that taxes act as a disincentive. And you would need to tax consumption very heavily if it were to replace current forms of tax. A large part of the population would simply not be able to afford anything but the bare essentials (if that) let alone have any money left for investment.
Read the Scott Sumner link I provided above.
I enjoy our discussion, but I am not interested in reading someone else make your argument for you.
The point is that a capital income tax penalizes consumption in the future relative to consumption today. A consumption tax treats them equally.
I am sure that's true, but so what? It's such an arbitrary point to make. It doesn't point towards any real world problem that we are having. The economic challenges that faces us today are not caused by people consuming too much today and saving too little for the future. Quite the opposite in fact. There is also no indication at all that there's any lack of risk seeking capital. It's never been easier to get funding for a new venture. In fact there are sign that it's become almost too easy, and that investors are taking on too large risks in order to get a return.
What then would you tax? Yachts and jewelry? At what rate? Do you think you could run any society on what could be collected on taxes on non-essential consumption?
> This implies that things like dividends should not be taxed, since no commerce occurs. All that happened is a piece of property split into two. Would you favor this outcome? If not, why not?
I'm fine with that, so long as the corporate tax side of the equation balances...companies use dividends to reduce their income and the taxes they pay. If a dividend is just splitting an asset in two, it shouldn't be deductible.
Dividends are paid with after-tax income. You might be confusing them with distributions paid by pass-through entities (where corporate income is treated as personal income by the owners).
>But that's a political non-starter; our western systems of taxation are built around the lie that the rich benefit disproportionately from our society.
Those who have more benefit more from a state of order. Be this material possession like money or natural qualities like beauty.
> Economically there is no good reason to distinguish between these two cases
The good reason is property rights. The ability for people to own things and use them as they see fit is almost a requirement for a free society. Governments have established that by creating rules and an environment where commerce can take place, they can collect taxes on that commerce. But I agree with the post you're replying to...creating fictional commerce and then taxing it doesn't seem right. If you're looking for a difference between the two cases you present, it's that the government is willing to act as an arbiter in any dispute that would result between landlord and tenant. When the landlord and tenant are the same person, there's no need for the government to be involved.
Note that this shouldn't preclude governments from collecting property taxes, just from differentiating between landlords and people who occupy their own homes.